Reference Passages: 1. John 3:16; 2. John 5:18; 3. John 10:30-33; 4. John 1:1-3; 5. John 20:28; 6. Philippians 2:5-6; 7. Titus 2:13-14; 8. Hebrews 1:8-12; 9. I John 5:20; 10. John 1:10-11, 14; 11. Isaiah 9:6; 12. Micah 5:2; 13. Philippians 2:7-8; 14. Acts 20:28; 15. I Timothy 3:16; 16. I John 3:16; 17. I John 4:1-3; 18. Romans 8:3 The “Good” LORD Jesus is 100 % God & 100 % Man. Originally ( inherently/innately/ intrinsically/essentially ), back in the Old Testament times, and even far beyond ( back in infinity- before anything was ever created ), our Master, Jesus the Christ was already in existence with God the Father & with God the Holy Spirit ( John 17:24; Micah 5:2; Psalm 90:1-2 ). All 3 of Them were infinite ( no commencement or beginning and no terminal point or end ). God, by virtue of being God, is definitely infinite. Since all 3 of them belong to the Godkind ( Deity/ Divinity/Godhood/Godhead ), no one among Them is finite.
Can God take Angelic form? How about human form? Yes, God can take Angelic form. In the same manner, God can take human form ( or any other form He would want to, since God is all- powerful ). Back in the Old Testament times, one among the 3 Persons/Individuals/Selves belonging to the Godkind had consistently ( over and over again/repeatedly ) taken either Angelic ( Gen. 48:15-16a; Exodus 3:1-6 ) or human form ( Gen. Chapter 18; 32:24-30; Dan. 3:13-25; Joshua 5:13-15 ) transiently or temporarily, as He showed or revealed Himself to His faithful servants.
Can a human being take the form of God? How about the form of an Angel? No, a human being or a humankind cannot take the form of God ( or transform into Godkind ). In the same manner, a humankind cannot take the form of an Angel ( or transform into Angelkind ), for all persons/individuals/selves belonging to the humankind ( just like the Angelkind ), are mere finite beings with limited capabilities.
There are faiths or beliefs who profess that Jesus does not possess Godhood/Deity/Divinity. They would merely stress or emphasize all the Biblical passages regarding the Manhood of Jesus, but they won’t quote and teach all the many passages, regarding His Godhood. They would even go to the extent of saying that Jesus is purely Man, and therefore ( according to them ), cannot take or possess Godhood. Instead of professing and propagating the Biblical teaching that Jesus is God who took Manhood upon Himself, they would profess and propagate that Jesus is purely Man, with no Godhood at all. The fraudulence or deceit and twists of their teachings are definitely manifest and apparent, disclosed, exposed and revealed to all those who seriously and diligently study their Bibles ( Acts 17:11; Psalm 1:1-3; Joshua 1:8; II Timothy 2:15 ), not merely human commentaries and magazines.
I have placed 18 sets of passages above to prove that Jesus is God who took Manhood upon Himself. We are going to tackle or undertake them, one by one!
First of all, let us quote the passages or verses from the Bible which establish ( ascertain/ confirm ) & prove the Godhood ( Deity/Divinity ), of the “Good” LORD Jesus. Then, later on, we are going to incorporate the passages which prove that this “Godkind” Jesus took Manhood or Humanity or Flesh upon Himself. It cannot be the other way around ( or “the Humankind Jesus, taking the form of God” ). Getting to quote “purely” the many passages or verses regarding the Manhood of Jesus without just regard for the many passages as well, regarding the Godhood of Jesus, is definitely “incomplete” ( INC. ) and deceitful or fraudulent. Otherwise, it is a blind exercise or practice of faith in naught or futility, enough ground to merit or deserve, hell and the lake of fire ( Revelation 20:14-15; 21:8 ).
1. John 3:16– For God so loved the world, that He gave His only begotten Son, that whosoever believeth in Him should not perish, but have Everlasting Life. The one referred to here, as God who loved the world is “God the Father”. The one referred to as the “only begotten” Son, is the Lord Jesus. The verse is written originally in Greek. The phrase or expression “only begotten” is “monogenes” in Greek, which is rendered appropriately as “single kind”. So, rendering it in the original, we have thus, “For God ( the Father ) so loved the world that He gave His “single kind” Son ( Jesus ), that whosoever believeth in Him (Jesus) should not perish but have Everlasting Life. Since Jesus is God the Father’s single kind Son, because God the Father is God or Godkind, His single kind Son is also God or Godkind. They belong to “one” ( meaning, singular/single– Jn. 10:30-33 ) and the same kind, for Jesus is God the Father’s one and only “own” Son ( Rom. 8:3, 32 ).
2. John 5:18– Therefore the Jews sought the more to kill Him, because He not only had broken the Sabbath, but said also that God was His Father, making Himself equal with God. Here, Jesus was being accused by the Jews of having broken the Sabbath. The Jews therefore sought the more to kill Jesus because He was also calling God, “His Father”, thus, making Himself equal with God ( or “God the Father” ). Where in the Bible is Jesus claiming equality with God the Father? Here!!! Don’t you forget this one!
3. John 10:30-33– I and my Father are one. Then the Jews took up stones again to stone Him. Jesus answered them, Many good works have I shewed you from My Father; for which of those works do ye stone Me? The Jews answered Him, saying, For a good work we stone Thee not; but for blasphemy; and because that Thou, being a man, makest Thyself God.What was the initial claim of Jesus in these passages? He had to say, “I and My Father are one.” What was the response of the Jews? They have to take up stones again to stone Jesus. What did Jesus say further? “Many good works have I showed you from My Father. For which of those works will you stone Me?” The Jews answered Jesus that it was not for the good works from God the Father, that Jesus was doing, which was the reason that they will stone Jesus, but ( according to them ) for blasphemy ( vilification/ridicule/insult/scorn “of God” ), and that ( according to them ) though He ( Jesus ) was ( or is ) a man, He’s making Himself God. Now, there is a church not belonging to Christ, who claims that when Jesus said, “I and My Father are one”, Jesus meant sameness or agreement/harmony/unity in work with God the Father. However, we can see clearly from the very passages itself that it’s not an issue of good works at all, since the Jews had to say that for a good work from God the Father, they would not stone Jesus, but for “blasphemy” and for “making Himself God”. Therefore, in essence, when Jesus said, “I and My Father are one”, He meant that God the Father and He ( Jesus ), belong to the same kind— Godkind, the real reason for which the Jews believed ( and thought ) they can validly stone ( or kill ) Jesus.
4. John 1:1-3– In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. The same was in the beginning with God. All things were made by Him; and without Him was not anything made that was made. Right at the very outset, it is clearly conveyed by these passages that there are 2 Persons/Individuals/Selves being referred to here. The 1st one is the “Word” ( who was already accompanying God from the very start or before anything ever came into being or existence ). The Greek equivalent ( the language by which the entire New Testament was originally written ) for the label or the word “Word” is “Logos”, and although the word “Logos” may ordinarily mean thought/idea/concept/speech/utterance, in its occurrence in other portions of the Bible, its contextual meaning here ( Jn. 1:1-2 ) is the “Personal” Word ( or Logos ), or the Logos ( or Word ) in “Person”. This “Word” in Person or “the Personal Word of God” is none other than the Lord Jesus Christ Himself ( Revelation 19:11-13; Hebrews 4:12-13 ). He was already “with” ( near to/nigh unto ) God ( herein referring to “God the Father” ) from the very start ( or before the creation of all things- John 1:18 ). Verse 1 arrived at the conclusion that the “Word”, Himself, is “God” ( not sound, not concept/not idea or mentality ), and He, being God or Godkind, had been “with” another Person labeled as well as God or Godkind, from the very start. This is the 2nd figure or Person being accompanied by the “Word” from the very start, God the Father, Himself. Again, we have 2 Figures or Personalities here: 1. The “Word” who is God— none, but Jesus; 2. God the Father, Himself;
5. John 20:28– And Thomas answered and said unto Him, “My Lord and my God”. Let’s expound this verse a little. 3 days after the death of the Manhood/Humanity/Flesh of God the Son, the Lord Jesus Christ, His Godhood/Deity/Divinity then resurrected His Manhood ( John 2:19; 11:25 ) as He previously promised. He had to appear initially to Mary Magdalene. Later that day, at even, He showed Himself to His disciples in a closed room where they were gathered. He showed to them His nail- pierced hands and His spear- wounded side. And they were all so happy, getting to see the Lord Jesus alive. At this point in time, Thomas ( also called Didymus ) was not around or present with them. So, when the other disciples told Thomas that they all saw Jesus alive, Thomas believed them not. He instead said, he won’t believe it unless he gets to see the print of the nails in the hands of Jesus, and have his fingers placed into it, and unless he gets to thrust his hand, by Jesus’ side. 8 days later, while the disciples were again gathered in a room, and this time Thomas with them, the Lord Jesus appeared before them all. Having shown to Thomas His hands and side and having satisfied Thomas’ requests to have his fingers placed in the wounded hands and side of Jesus, Thomas answered Jesus saying, “My Lord and my God”. Again, the same church who would always quote the many passages or verses regarding the Manhood of Jesus, but would always conceal and disregard mentioning or quoting the many passages as well, regarding the Godhood of Jesus, would rationalize, that Thomas didn’t acknowledged the Godhood of Jesus, by saying, “My Lord and my God”, but instead ( according to them ), Thomas was merely startled or surprised, he unintentionally expressed an utterance of shock, as if He was saying for example, “Oh, My God!” However, this is not really the case with the above verse, for had Thomas been merely surprised with what the Lord Jesus had shown him, and there was really no recognition on the part of Thomas regarding the Lordship and the Godhood of Jesus, Jesus should not have acknowledged the statement of Thomas, saying, “Thomas, because thou hast seen Me, thou hast believed. Blessed are they that have not seen and yet have believed”. Instead, Jesus should have said to Thomas, “Thomas, why were you startled or surprised?” Since Jesus didn’t asked Thomas this way, it is clear enough that the statement of Thomas, “My Lord and my God”, was being addressed directly to Jesus, in recognition of Jesus’ Lordship and Godhood.
6. Philippians 2:5-6– Let this mind be in you, which was also in Christ Jesus: Who, being in the form of God, thought it not robbery to be equal with God; Here, the Apostle Paul was encouraging or persuading the church at Philippi to possess the same mind that their Master Jesus Christ possesses- lowly, meek and humble ( verses 3, 7 & 8 ). Our emphasis though ( for this very purpose ) is verse 6, where the said verse talks of Christ as, “while ( or though ) He was in the form of God, He thought it not robbery to be equal with God”. Clearly, the verse claims/asserts/declares that Jesus is in the “form” of God. The Greek word used ( the Language by which the entire New Testament was originally written ) for the word “form” is “morphe” which literally means “shape”, but figuratively ( representationally/ emblematically/symbolically ) means “nature” or “essence” or “category” or “level” or “sort” or “class” or “type” or “genre” or “genus” or “kind”. So, quoting the verse again from the original, “… Jesus ‘being in the nature of God’ ( or ‘being God in kind’/ or ‘being Godkind’ ), thought it not robbery ( or ‘deemed it not stealing’ ) to be equal ( or ‘to equate Himself’- John 5:18 ) with God ( herein referring to ‘God the Father’- John 10:30-33 )”. If Jesus is “purely” a Man with no Godhood/Deity/Divinity, and He had thought it not robbery to equate Himself ( or to be equal ) with God ( the Father ), He would be far worse than Satan! Why? Because the Angelkind ( like Satan ), is higher in the hierarchy or echelon or ladder of creation than the Humankind. Jesus would have appeared more haughty/arrogant/prideful than Satan. You’re purely a Man and You would aspire for the Godhood!!! Satan was not merely an Angel of Light, back in the past. He used to be “Lucifer”, an Archangel ( or a Chief Angel ) of the Most High God. Since he aspired for the Godhood ( or Deity/Divinity/ Godhead/ Godkind– Isaiah 14:12-14; Ezekiel 28:15-17 ), the LORD God rejected him and brought him low. Since Jesus really possesses Godhood, God the Father won’t reject Him at all, even if He thought it not robbery to equate Himself with Him. Otherwise, had Jesus been purely Man, He would have deserved or merited greater and worse punishment than Satan, for not thinking it robbery, equating Himself with God the Father.
7. Titus 2:13-14– Looking for that blessed hope, and the glorious appearing of the great God and our Saviour Jesus Christ; Who gave Himself for us, that He might redeem us from all iniquity, and purify unto Himself a peculiar people, zealous of good works. Question: Is “the great God” and “our Savior Jesus Christ” 2 different Persons or merely a singular One? Answer: “The great God” and “our Savior Jesus Christ” is definitely and clearly a singular Person! However, there is a church not really belonging to Christ who professes and confesses, that “the great God” and “our Savior Jesus Christ” referred to in this set of passages or verses, are 2 distinct/different/dissimilar/unlike/varied Persons or Individuals or Selves. According to them, “the great God” is God the Father, while “our Savior” is the Lord Jesus Christ. Yes, we agree with them that “our Savior is the Lord Jesus Christ”, since verse 13 explicitly or openly declares it ( “our Savior Jesus Christ” ), but we don’t agree with them that “the great God” here refers to “God the Father”, since this “great God” here will have a “glorious appearing”. Don’t we always say that “God the Father” is the infinitely/ permanently/perpetually invisible God, to all the Createdkinds ( including the Angelkind & the Humankind- John 1:18; I John 4:12; I Timothy 6:16; John 6:46 )? Moreover, there is only one “Savior” or “Salvation”, being taught in the entire Bible or Holy Scriptures— none, but Jesus ( the God- I Timothy 1:1; 2:3; 4:10; Titus 1:3, 4; 2:10; 3:4; II Peter 1:1; II Timothy 1:10; Titus 3:6; II Peter 1:11; 2:20; 3:2, 18; I John 4:14; Jude 1:25; Exodus 15:2; Job 13:15-16A; Psalm 27:1; 35:3B; 38:22; 62:1-2, 5-6; 118:14, 21; Isaiah 12:2; 33:2; 62:11; Luke 19:1-9; Acts 4:9-12, who took Manhood upon Himself- Heb. 9:22; John 1:29, 36; Revelation 13:8 ). By the way, “Salvation” and “Savior” are 2 synonymous words, not referring to processes or procedures or methods, but only and exclusively to the very Person of the Lord Jesus Christ, Himself. Again, the only God or Godkind who will have a glorious appearing is none other than “the great God”- “our Savior, Jesus Christ”.
8. Hebrews 1:8-12– But unto the Son He saith, Thy throne, O God, is forever and ever: a sceptre of righteousness is the sceptre of Thy kingdom. Thou hast loved righteousness, and hated iniquity; therefore God, even Thy God, hath anointed Thee with the oil of gladness above Thy fellows. And, Thou, Lord, in the beginning hast laid the foundation of the earth; and the heavens are the works of Thine hands: They shall perish; but Thou remainest; and they all shall wax old as doth a garment; And as a vesture shalt Thou fold them up, and they shall be changed: but Thou art the same, and Thy years shall not fail. Take note of the Person addressing the Son as “God”. If you backtrack to verse 5, and proceed onwards, you will see clearly ( lucidly/obviously/visibly/evidently ) that This is “God the Father”, and not only is He calling Jesus, “My Son” ( Psalm 2:7 ), but “God” as well ( Hebrews 1:8 )! Since God the Father is calling His “own” Son ( Romans 8:3, 32 ) “God”, it is therefore obvious that they belong to a “single” and “the same kind”— God or Godkind! Furthermore, God the Father is saying that the throne of His Godkind Son is forever and ever or unending, and the scepter of His kingdom is a righteous scepter, and that His Godkind Son has loved righteousness and hated iniquity. Because of these, God the Father who is of the same kind with God the Son ( John 10:30-33; 5:18; Philippians 2:5-6; John 1:1; 3:16; 20:28; Titus 2:13-14 ), has anointed/painted/covered/smeared Him with God the Holy Spirit ( who is God the Son’s symbolic “anointing Oil” of gladness ) above His fellows ( associates/ companions ). Aside from this, God the Father had been accounting that it is His Son whom He calls and addresses as “God” and “Lord”, whom in the beginning or from the very start, created all things ( having laid the foundation of the earth, & the heavens being the work of His hands ). When according to God the Father, the heavens and the earth shall perish (expire/pass away ) as doth a garment waxing old, and like a vesture being folded up to be changed ( Revelation 20:11 ), yet His Godkind Son— Jesus, would remain the same and abide forevermore ( Hebrews 13:8 ). If all these burden of evidences don’t attribute Godhood to Jesus, I don’t see any point at all, why God the Father had to call Jesus, “God” and “Lord”.
9. I John 5:20– And we know that the Son of God is come, and hath given us an understanding, that we may know Him that is true, and we are in Him that is true, even in His Son Jesus Christ. This is the true God, and eternal life. I believe that the verse is quite obvious in saying that the true God and Eternal Life is the Lord Jesus Christ, God the Father’s Son. Try to exhaust all efforts to find and to read from the entire Holy Scriptures or the Bible the one and only “Eternal Life” in Person, and you will find out that it points to no one else, except the Lord Jesus Christ ( John 5:39-40; I John 1:2 [ John 1:1-2, 18 ]; 5:11, 13; John 3:36; 6:47 ). Since only the Lord Jesus is the “Eternal Life” in Person, and neither God the Father nor God the Holy Spirit, only the Lord Jesus among the “Trinity” ( or among the Godkind ), bears the title “the true God and Eternal Life”, though God the Father is “true God”, and though God the Holy Spirit is “true God” as well.
10. John 1:10-11, 14– He was in the world, and the world was made by Him, and the world knew Him not. He came unto His own, and His own received Him not… And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld His glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth. Who is this Person being referred to as “the One who was in the world and He, Himself, made the world, yet the world knew Him not”? Moreover, “He came into this world ( being His possession or ownership- John 1:3; Colossians 1:16; Hebrews 1:10; Revelation 4:11; Exodus 19:5 [ I Corinthians 10:1-4; Hebrews 11:24-26 ]; Psalm 24:1; I Corinthians 10:26, 28B ) and this world ( being His own ) received or accepted Him not.” Clearly, this Person is none other than the Lord Jesus Christ ( for it is He whom God the Father had sent into the world [ John 3:16 ] )! Yet, our main emphasis is John 1:14, where the verse says, “And the Word ( who is God- John 1:1, being with the Father- John 1:18, none, but God the Son ) was made ( came into being/generated/produced ) flesh ( Humanity/Manhood ), and dwelt among us, and we beheld ( observed/saw ) His glory ( honor/dignity/brilliance/magnificence/excellence/grandeur/splendor ), the glory as of the only begotten of the Father, full of grace and truth.” At this very point, we can already see Jesus as the God who took flesh/Humanity/Manhood upon Himself ( John 1:1-3, 10-11, 14 ). Of course, it cannot really be, the other way around— “Jesus the Man, taking Godhood upon Himself”. That would be too absurd ( ridiculous/out of tune )!!!
11. Isaiah 9:6– For unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given: and the government shall be upon His shoulder: and His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, The mighty God, The Everlasting Father, The Prince of Peace. Notice the time frame or the instance or the season when this passage was written: Old Testament times!!! This was a prophetic declaration by Isaiah, of the events that are about to take place, come the New Testament times ( and onwards ), where a child or babe would be born ( Matthew 1:23 ) and a son would be given ( Matthew 1:21 ), whom in His “perfect” ( Hebrews 4:15 ) Manhood or Humanity or Flesh ( indwelt by His Deity/Divinity/Godhood— i.e., “Emmanuel” [ Matthew 1:23 ] ), will carry His ever increasing peaceful government, upon His shoulder on the throne of David, and throughout His kingdom, to have it ordered and established with judgment & justice, forever ( Isaiah 9:7 ). The last line of verse 6 says, “And His name shall be called Wonderful, Counselor, the Mighty God, the Everlasting Father and the Prince of Peace”. Here, 5 titles were applied to “God the Son, Incarnate” ( in the flesh ), all of which are suitable/appropriate/proper and apt/fitting/applicable to Him. Although Jesus ( Iesous—Yahweh Shua ) bears the title, “the Mighty God”, yet we learned from our reference passage above that His flesh or Manhood, experienced infancy and childhood.
12. Micah 5:2– But thou, Bethlehem Ephratah, though thou be little among the thousands of Judah, yet out of thee shall He come forth unto Me that is to be Ruler in Israel; whose goings forth have been from of old, from everlasting. When the LORD Jesus ( Yahweh Shua/ Yehoshua/ Yeshuwah, being God/Godkind- John 5:18; Philippians 2:5-6; John 10:30-33 ), took human form upon Himself, He took Joseph ( of the house and lineage of David ), for the foster/replacement/surrogate/substitute/proxy father of His humanity/manhood/flesh ( Luke 3:23 ). And there, in the city of David which is Bethlehem, inside the land or hill country of Judah or Judaea, His manhood/flesh was born as a babe ( in a manger ), out of the womb (uterus) of the “virgin” Mary, the foster/replacement/surrogate/substitute/proxy mother of that same humanity/flesh of His ( Matthew 1:18-20, 23-25 ). While Jesus’ Manhood/ Humanity/Flesh was created by His Deity/Divinity/Godhood ( John 1:3; Colossians 1:16; Acts 17:24-25 ), in the 3rd heaven/Paradise ( I Corinthians 15:47; John 3:31, 13; 6:51, 50 ), as a “seed”, then brought forth, implanted and fostered by God the Holy Spirit in the womb/uterus of the “virgin” Mary ( Matthew 1:20 ), for 9 months ( prior to parturition/delivery ), His Godhood, on the other hand, which indwelt His Manhood/Flesh came from of old/antiquity, i.e., from everlasting/eternity/infinity ( Psalms 90:1-2 ). How things did happen? Mary and Joseph are espoused/betrothed/engaged to each other. They are about to be married. They have not had sexual intercourse yet. Suddenly, Mary became pregnant, for God the Holy Spirit had miraculously come upon her, and the power of God had overshadowed her. Then Joseph, thinking that Mary had been impregnated by another man, not willing to put her to public shame, decided to put Mary away privately. But the Angel of the Lord appeared to Joseph in a dream, assuring him to take Mary for his wife, for that which is conceived in Mary is of ( or “from” ) God the Holy Ghost. At about this time, Mary and Joseph were residing in the city of Nazareth, inside Galilee. Later on, when Mary was about to give birth, a law or a decree came out from Caesar Augustus, that all the lands should be taxed, and since all had to be taxed into their city of origin, Joseph and Mary went into the city of David, which is called Bethlehem, in the land of Judaea ( for Joseph is of the house and lineage of David- Luke 2:1- 4 ). While in Bethlehem, Mary had to give birth to the Manhood/Humanity of “God the Son”— the Lord Jesus Christ ( Luke 1:35B; Romans 8:3, 32 ), in a manger. Tracing the root(s) of the flesh/Manhood of God the Son, Incarnate: Abraham is the ancestor of Jacob or Israel— Israel is the ancestor of David— David is the ancestor of Joseph ( the husband of Mary= who gave birth to the flesh/Humanity/Manhood of “God the Son” or “the Son of God”, while still a “virgin” [ Matthew 1:25 ] ). About 3 days after the death of the flesh/Manhood of Jesus, His Godhood/Deity resurrected the same, and 40 days later, His disciples and followers had to see Him ascend, into the 3rd heaven or Paradise. Sum up of Micah 5:2: The Godhood of Jesus came into this world ( John 3:16-17 ), utilizing the lineage of David ( his descendant= Joseph, being Mary’s espouse [ who gave “virgin” birth in Bethlehem, Ephratah, of the land of Judah ] ), as the seeming/apparent/ outward entry point of His Manhood/Flesh into this world, later to rule and govern His people, and further His kingdom, a never ending one ( Luke 1:31-33; Hebrews 1:8 ). Yet, for the time being, He had to ascend into the 3rd heaven or Paradise and sit at His Father’s side ( or “sit at about His Father’s right hand” ), until all His enemies be subdued unto Him ( Psalm 110:1; Hebrews 1:13 ).
13. Philippians 2:7-8– But made Himself of no reputation, and took upon Him the form of a servant, and was made in the likeness of men: And being found in fashion as a man, He humbled Himself, and became obedient unto death, even the death of the cross. This Person is none other than the Lord Jesus Christ ( verse 5 ) and in the succeeding verse, it is mentioned, that He thought or deemed it not robbery to equate Himself with God ( “the Father” ), for He is “God in kind” or “Godkind” or “God” ( i.e., in the form [ “morphe”= nature/essence/category/level/sort/class/genre/genus/kind ] of God ). The above passages say, “He made Himself of no reputation” ( meaning, “He abased/humbled/humiliated/ belittled Himself” ), and took upon Him the form ( nature/function ) of a servant ( slave/ steward/bondman ), and “was made in the likeness of men” ( meaning, “came into being in the resemblance/similitude/similarity of a human being” or “took human form”- Isaiah 9:6; Micah 5:2; John 1:1, 14; I Timothy 3:16; I John 3:16; I John 4:1-3 ). And being found ( or having manifested/revealed ) in fashion ( or “appearance” ) as a man ( or “human being” ), He humbled ( or humiliated/abased/belittled/brought low ) Himself, and became obedient/ submissive/subservient unto death, even the death of the cross.
14. Acts 20:28– Take heed therefore unto yourselves, and to all the flock, over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you overseers, to feed the church of God, which He hath purchased with His own blood. After the Apostle Paul had gone to Trogyllium ( a place in Asia Minor )- Acts 20:15, he had to go to Miletus ( a city of Asia Minor )- Acts 20:17. From there, he sent for the elders/presbyters at the church in Ephesus ( another city of Asia Minor ), for to come to him. And when they were come, he had to give them this instructions: ‘Take heed ( beware/be cautious/pay attention ) therefore unto yourselves and to all the “flock” ( or group of believers [ in Christ ] ), over the which the Holy Ghost hath made you “overseers” ( or “Bishops” ), to feed ( tend/supervise/look after/care for/watch over/nurture/nourish ) the church ( “ekklesia”= Christian community ) of “God” ( “Theos” in Greek, not “Christos” ), which He hath purchased ( or bought/acquired ) with His own blood’. Unmistakably, God is a Spirit ( no flesh, no bones [ John 4:24; Luke 24:39C ], and “no blood”, since blood cells are produced by the bone marrows inside the bones )! But the question is, “Why does this God or Godkind possess ‘blood’, by which He purchased/bought the church?” Answer: because this God/Godkind took flesh/Manhood/Humanity/Human form upon Himself ( I Timothy 3:16; I John 3:16; Isaiah 9:6; Philippians 2:5-8; I John 4:1-3; John 1:1, 14 ), so that through the shed blood of His Manhood, the punishment or penalty of the entire world’s sin(s) may be pardoned/absolved/forgiven, conditionally ( John 3:15 ). That surely sounds like no one else, except “God the Son, Incarnate”, the Lord Jesus Christ! However, there is a church who changed the expression, “to feed the church of God which He hath purchased with His own blood” to “to feed the church of Christ which He hath purchased with His own blood”. This, they did intently, to nullify the Biblical teaching, that there is a God or Godkind who took human flesh or Manhood upon Himself, the very reason why, This God or Godkind, possessed blood, by which He purchased His church. How did they do that? They substituted the word “God”= Theos in Greek, with the word “Christ”= “Christos” in Greek, to come up with, “to feed the church of Christ which He hath purchased with His own blood”. Since the original word used is “God” or “Theos”, and not “Christ” or “Christos”, their distorted claim that Jesus Christ is purely Man won’t really thrive in due time, for rest assured ( certainly ), their sin(s) will find them out ( Numbers 32:23B ).
15. I Timothy 3:16– And without controversy, great is the mystery of Godliness: God was manifest in the flesh, justified in the Spirit, seen of angels, preached unto the Gentiles, believed on in the world, received up into glory. The verse is plain and simple, yet so meaningful! It says, “Without controversy ( or without argument/confessedly ), great is the mystery ( or secret ) of Godliness ( or piety/holiness ): God ( or ‘Theos’ ) was manifest ( or manifested/appeared ) in the flesh ( or carnally/as a human being– John 1:1, 14; Isaiah 9:6; Micah 5:2; Matthew 1:23; Philippians 2:5-8; I John 3:16 [ Romans 5:6-8 ]; I John 4:1-3 ), justified ( or rendered just/innocent/blameless/righteous/upright/guiltless– Hebrews 4:14-15 ) in the Spirit, seen of Angels ( Of course, This could not be God the Father because He is infinitely/permanently/perpetually invisible to all the createdkinds- John 1:18; I John 4:12; I Timothy 6:16; John 6:46; ), preached unto the Gentiles ( I Corinthians 1:23; Acts 14:15 [ John 1:3, 10; Hebrews 1:10; Colossians 1:16; Revelation 4:11 ]; Acts 16:10; II Corinthians 4:5; Colossians 1:27-28 ), believed on in the world ( John 1:12; 2:11, 23; 4:39, 41, 53; 7:31; 8:30-31; 10:42; 11:45; 12:11, 42; 16:27; 17:8; 20:29; Acts 4:4; 9:42; 11:17, 21; 14:23; 16:31; 18:8; 22:19; Galatians 2:16; II Timothy 1:12; John 3:16, 15 ), received up into glory ( Micah 5:2; John 6:62 Luke 24:50-51; Mark 16:19 [ Psalm 110:1; Hebrews 1:13 ]; John 3:13 ). Who do you think is This God or Godkind who appeared in the flesh? He was proven guiltless or blameless! He was “directly” seen by Angels! He was preached unto the Gentiles! He was believed on, in the world! And finally, He was received up into glory!! Oh, it’s none but Jesus!!!
16. I John 3:16– Hereby perceive we the love of God, because He laid down His life for us: and we ought to lay down our lives for the brethren. Quoting this verse from the original, we have thus, “Herein know we ( understand we/become we aware of ) the love of God, because He sacrificed ( or offered ) His life for us, and we should ( or must ) sacrifice ( or offer ) our lives for the brothers”. Did God the Father ever sacrifice/offer His life for this world, or more specifically and leniently, for the church ( or “body of believers” )? How about God the Holy Spirit? Both answers: No!!! Only “the Godkind Son” or “God the Son” ( Hebrews 1:8-9 )- the Lord Jesus Christ, was able to do that, for only Him among the Godkind, took Flesh or Human form upon Himself, which He laid down or sacrificed or offered, till ( or until ) death upon the cross (John 10:16-18; Romans 5:8; John 2:19; 1:29, 36; Revelation 13:8; Isaiah 53:5 ).
17. I John 4:1-3– Beloved, believe not every spirit, but try the spirits whether they are of God: because many false prophets are gone out into the world. Hereby know ye the Spirit of God: Every spirit that confesseth that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is of God: And every spirit that confesseth not that Jesus Christ is come in the flesh is not of God: and this is that spirit of antichrist, whereof ye have heard that it should come; and even now already is it in the world. Take a look at this set of passages circumspectly/cautiously/vigilantly/attentively! If you will just selectively account for the Manhood or Humanity of Jesus ( making Him purely Man ), and deny His Godhood ( John 5:18; Philippians 2:5-6; John 10:30-33; 20:28; 1:1; Titus 2:13-14; Hebrews 1:8-9; John 3:16; I John 5:20 ), you will render injustice to the appropriate/proper and authentic/genuine accounting or appraisal, of the real Jesus Christ, in Person. That’s the very reason why throughout the entire presentation of this writing or topic, we established and presented first the teachings about the Godhood/Deity/Divinity of God the Son, Incarnate= the Lord Jesus Christ. Having done so, we can now present accurately, the picture being depicted or portrayed- demonstrated, by I John 4:1-3. With Jesus being inherently/innately/intrinsically/naturally/originally God or Godkind ( John 3:16; Romans 8:3, 32 ), He later had to come in the flesh, for every spirit that confesses that He did so, is of God, while every spirit that confesses not, that this Godkind Jesus, is come in the flesh, is not of God, but is, of the antichrist.
18. Romans 8:3– For what the law could not do, in that it was weak through the flesh, God sending His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh, and for sin, condemned sin in the flesh: Here, the God being referred to, who sent His “own” Son, is none other than “God the Father”, Himself. Since Jesus is the Father’s “one and only” Son ( John 3:16 ) that is of the same kind with Him ( John 10:30-33; Hebrews 1:8-9 ), because the Father is God or Godkind, His own Son ( Romans 8:32 ) therefore, is God or Godkind, as well. As you can see, the above passage says, that God sent His own Son in the likeness of sinful flesh. In other words, God the Father sent “the God who is His Son”- Hebrews 1:8 ( or “God the Son” ) in the form/appearance/resemblance/similitude of sinful human being ( Philippians 2:7-8; Hebrews 4:14-15 ), to nullify sin in His very own Flesh/Humanity/Manhood, upon the death of that same Manhood of His, on the cross, through the shedding of blood ( Hebrews 9:22 ), and its eventual resurrection ( John 2:19; 11:25; Matthew 28:6; Mark 16:6; Luke 24:6 ). The inexhaustible grace/favor, and blessings, of the Almighty, “Good” Lord God the Son, Jesus the Christ, Incarnate, Perfect Man and All in all, be upon us all, as we get to commit/ devote and subject/submit, as well as surrender/totally yield, our all to Him.
Closing Prayer: Lord Jesus, You are God the Son Incarnate! You are spotless and blameless. You are perfect and complete, and You are all in all! You sacrificed Your Flesh or Manhood ( for all ), till death upon the cross, so that we who are alive “physically”, should no longer live for ourselves, but for You Lord Jesus, who died for us, and rose again. Thank You for Your complete work of ransom and redemption for us, conditionally ( John 3:15 ). Always help us to live for You, in Jesus’ name. Amen!!!
By: Dr. Edmund Paul Medina
“Jesus, The God Who Took Manhood Upon Himself” by Dr. Edmund Paul Medina is licensed under aCreative Commons Attribution-NonCommercial-NoDerivs 3.0 Unported License.
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